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HashiCorp Terraform-Associate-003 Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • Create, maintain, and use Terraform modules: In this section of the exam, candidates are tested for creating a module, using a module in configuration, and topics such as refactoring an existing configuration into modules.
Topic 2
  • Develop and troubleshoot dynamic configuration: This section deals with topics such as using language features to validate configuration query providers using data sources, computing and interpolating data using HCL functions, and using meta-arguments in configuration.
Topic 3
  • Collaborate on infrastructure as code using HCP Terraform: In this section, the topics covered include analyzing the HCP Terraform run workflow, the role of HCP Terraform workspaces and their configuration options, and the management of provider credentials in HCP Terraform.

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HashiCorp Certified: Terraform Associate (003) Sample Questions (Q40-Q45):

NEW QUESTION # 40
You add a new provider to your configuration and immediately run terraform apply in the CD using the local backend. Why does the apply fail?

  • A. Terraform needs to install the necessary plugins first
  • B. Terraform needs you to format your code according to best practices first
  • C. Terraform requires you to manually run terraform plan first
  • D. The Terraform CD needs you to log into Terraform Cloud first

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The reason why the apply fails after adding a new provider to the configuration and immediately running terraform apply in the CD using the local backend is because Terraform needs to install the necessary plugins first. Terraform providers are plugins that Terraform uses to interact with various cloud services and other APIs. Each provider has a source address that determines where to download it from. When Terraform encounters a new provider in the configuration, it needs to run terraform init first to install the provider plugins in a local directory. Without the plugins, Terraform cannot communicate with the provider and perform the desired actions. References = [Provider Requirements], [Provider Installation]


NEW QUESTION # 41
What is the workflow for deploying new infrastructure with Terraform?

  • A. Write Terraform configuration, run terraform plan to initialize the working directory or workspace, and terraform apply to create the infrastructure
  • B. Write Terraform configuration, run terraform init to initialize the working directory or workspace, and run terraform apply
  • C. Write Terraform configuration, run terraform show to view proposed changes, and terraform apply to create new infrastructure
  • D. Write Terraform configuration, run terraform apply to create infrastructure, use terraform validate to confirm Terraform deployed resources correctly

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is the workflow for deploying new infrastructure with Terraform, as it will create a plan and apply it to the target environment. The other options are either incorrect or incomplete.


NEW QUESTION # 42
The_________determines how Terraform creates, updates, or delete resources.

  • A. Terraform core
  • B. Terraform provider
  • C. Terraform configuration
  • D. Terraform provisioner

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is what determines how Terraform creates, updates, or deletes resources, as it is responsible for understanding API interactions with some service and exposing resources and data sources based on that API.


NEW QUESTION # 43
What kind of configuration block will create an infrastructure object with settings specified within the block?

  • A. state
  • B. resource
  • C. provider
  • D. data

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
This is the kind of configuration block that will create an infrastructure object with settings specified within the block. The other options are not used for creating infrastructure objects, but for configuring providers, accessing state data, or querying data sources.


NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following arguments are required when declaring a Terraform output?

  • A. description
  • B. sensitive
  • C. value
  • D. default

Answer: C

Explanation:
When declaring a Terraform output, the value argument is required. Outputs are a way to extract information from Terraform-managed infrastructure, and the value argument specifies what data will be outputted. While other arguments like description and sensitive can provide additional context or security around the output, value is the only mandatory argument needed to define an output.
Reference = The requirement of the value argument for outputs is specified in Terraform's official documentation, which provides guidelines on defining and using outputs in Terraform configurations.


NEW QUESTION # 45
......

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TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • SAP Signavio Process Collaboration Hub: It focuses on sharing feedback on process content by navigating through process information and collaborating with other business users.
Topic 2
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Topic 3
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Topic 4
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Topic 5
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SAP Certified Associate - Process Management Consultant - SAP Signavio Sample Questions (Q57-Q62):

NEW QUESTION # 57
How should a decision diagram be named?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

  • A. Passive style
  • B. Output style
  • C. Activity style
  • D. questio n style
  • E. Decision style

Answer: B,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 58
Who becomes Tenant Owner of a workspace in SAP Signavio Process Manager?

  • A. The initial user who registered for a workspace
  • B. Every user who is assigned to the user group Administrators Account
  • C. Dedicated users selected by the administrator
  • D. Every user who is assigned to the user group Tenant Owner

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 59
What does a good customer experience have an influence on? Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

  • A. Customer service costs
  • B. Customer loyalty
  • C. Legal compliance
  • D. Brand status
  • E. Cross & upselling

Answer: A,B,D


NEW QUESTION # 60
You want to start modeling a new process from scratch.
How can you do this directly from the SAP Signavio Process Collaboration Hub?

  • A. Click the 'Recent' tab and select the latest diagram
  • B. Select the task tab
  • C. Click 'Create' in the upper right corner and select the appropriate diagram
  • D. Within a diagram, select the three dots on the right side of the process and Select 'Edit'

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 61
How does the Event-based Gateway work?

  • A. The token waits for all connected events.
  • B. The token is triggered by events happening at the same time.
  • C. A token is created for each connected event.
  • D. The token waits for the first occurring event.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 62
......

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ISACA IT Risk Fundamentals Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q63-Q68):

NEW QUESTION # 63
An enterprise has initiated a project to implement a risk-mitigating control. Which of the following would provide senior management with the MOST useful information on the project's status?

  • A. Risk report
  • B. Risk heat map
  • C. Risk register

Answer: A

Explanation:
For senior management, a risk report provides the most useful information on the status of a project to implement a risk-mitigating control. Here's why:
* Comprehensive Overview:A risk report offers a detailed overview of all identified risks, their current status, and the effectiveness of the controls in place. This comprehensive view is crucial for senior management to understand the progress and any remaining challenges.
* Actionable Insights:Risk reports include actionable insights and recommendations, helping management make informed decisions about resource allocation, prioritizing efforts, and implementing further risk mitigation strategies.
* Ongoing Monitoring:Regular risk reports allow for ongoing monitoring of the project's status, ensuring that any deviations from the planned risk mitigation activities are identified and addressed promptly.
* References:According to professional auditing standards like ISA 315, ongoing communication and reporting on risk management activities are vital for effective governance and oversight by senior management.


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following is the MAIN objective of governance?

  • A. Creating value through investments for the organization
  • B. Creating controls throughout the entire organization
  • C. Creating risk awareness at all levels of the organization

Answer: A

Explanation:
Governance is primarily concerned with ensuring that an organization achieves its objectives, operates efficiently, and adds value to its stakeholders. The main objective of governance is to create value through investments for the organization. This encompasses making strategic decisions that align with the organization's goals, ensuring that resources are used effectively, and that the organization's activities are sustainable and provide long-term benefits. While creating controls and risk awareness are essential aspects of governance, they serve the broader goal of value creation through strategic investments. This concept is aligned with principles found in corporate governance frameworks and standards such as ISO/IEC 38500 and COBIT (Control Objectives for Information and Related Technologies).


NEW QUESTION # 65
Organizations monitor control statuses to provide assurance that:

  • A. compliance with established standards is achieved.
  • B. return on investment (ROI) objectives are met.
  • C. risk events are being fully mitigated.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Purpose of Monitoring Control Statuses:
* Organizations monitor control statuses to ensure that the controls in place are functioning correctly and achieving their intended outcomes.
Providing Assurance:
* Monitoring control statuses provides assurance that the organization is compliant with established standards, regulations, and internal policies.
* Compliance is a critical aspect of governance and risk management, ensuring that the organization operates within legal and regulatory frameworks.
Comparison of Options:
* Bensuring risk events are fully mitigated is an important aspect but is secondary to the overarching goal of compliance.
* Cmeeting ROI objectives is related to financial performance but does not directly relate to the primary purpose of control monitoring, which is compliance.
Conclusion:
* Thus, the primary reason for monitoring control statuses is to provide assurance thatcompliance with established standards is achieved.


NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following is a valid source or basis for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

  • A. Historical enterprise risk metrics
  • B. External threat reporting services
  • C. Risk workshop brainstorming

Answer: A

Explanation:
Sources for Selecting KRIs:
* Historical Enterprise Risk Metrics:These provide data-driven insights into past risk events, helping to identify patterns and potential future risks.
* Risk Workshop Brainstorming:While valuable, this approach relies on subjective input and may not be as reliable as historical data.
* External Threat Reporting Services:Useful for understanding external risks, but may not provide comprehensive insights specific to the enterprise.
Importance of Historical Data:
* Using historical risk metrics ensures that KRIs are based on actual risk occurrences and trends within the enterprise.
* This approach allows for more accurate and relevant KRIs that reflect the enterprise's specific risk profile.
References:
* ISA 315 (Revised 2019), Anlage 6highlights the importance of using reliable and relevant data sources for risk management, ensuring that KRIs are effective in predicting and monitoring risks.


NEW QUESTION # 67
To be effective, risk reporting and communication should provide:

  • A. stakeholders with concise information focused on key points.
  • B. the same risk information for each decision-making stakeholder.
  • C. risk reports to each business unit and groups of employees.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Effective Risk Reporting:
* Effective risk reporting should provide relevant, concise, and focused information that addresses the key points necessary for decision-making.
Relevance and Conciseness:
* Providing risk reports to each business unit and groups of employees (A) can lead to information overload and may not be practical or effective.
* The same risk information for each decision-making stakeholder (B) may not be appropriate as different stakeholders have varying levels of responsibility and information needs.
Focused Communication:
* Providing concise information focused on key points ensures that stakeholders receive relevant data without unnecessary details, facilitating better decision-making.
* This approach is supported by best practices in risk management reporting, which emphasize the importance of clarity, relevance, and focus.
Conclusion:
* Therefore, risk reporting and communication should providestakeholders with concise information focused on key points.


NEW QUESTION # 68
......

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F5 Application Delivery Fundamentals Exam Sample Questions (Q137-Q142):

NEW QUESTION # 137
What is the purpose of provisioning.

  • A. Provisioning allows modules that are licensed be granted appropriate resource levels.
  • B. Provisioning allows the administrator to see what modules are licensed, but no user action is ever required.
  • C. Provisioning allows modules that are not licensed to be fully tested.
  • D. Provisioning allows the administrator to activate modules in non-standard combinations.

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NEW QUESTION # 138
A monitor has been defined with an alias port of 443. All other options are left at their defaults.
The administrator wishes to assign it to a pool of members where the members' ports vary. Which is the result?

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  • B. This assignment is not allowed since the port do not match.
  • C. For each member, if the member port is not 443, the member will be marked down. For each member,if the member? Port is not 443, the member will be marked down.
  • D. For each member, the monitor will test member node at port 443. For each member, the monitor will test the member ? node at port 443.

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An administrator needs to allow secure access to application within the corporate data center for remote office, branch office and mobile employees.
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  • B. ASM
  • C. APM
  • D. AFM

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When a business is hacked, they often lose more than money. What are the other consequences to abusiness as a result of being hacked?Select two.

  • A. Valuable free press that occurs as companies address hacking incidents
  • B. Penalties related to non-compliance with laws and regulations
  • C. Helpful third party reviews of the security needs of the customer's web applications
  • D. Final resolution of all security vulnerabilities of the business' web applications
  • E. Loss of customers when slow connections drive customers to competitor's site

Answer: C,D


NEW QUESTION # 141
10:20: 37 .00749:IP 199.16.255.254.36664>10.0.1.10 http : flags (s) seq 700424862, Win 29200 A website is fronted by a toad balancer that implements a full proxy architecture with SNAT enabled Behind the load balancer there are bro nodes Node 1 and node2 She administrator is debugging an issue on node 1 using icpdump and records the above out about a received packet o watch device does the IP address 192 168 265 254" belong?

  • A. load balancer
  • B. node 1
  • C. web Client
  • D. node2

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 142
......

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